Both short-term and long-term inflation are relevant for different purposes.
It matters a lot whether the expected average inflation rate in the future is ±½%, 4%, or 25% when you get a 30-year mortgage on a house, sign a 99-year lease, save money for retirement 45 years in the future, buy a life insurance policy that probably won't pay off for 50 years, or rent an apartment to someone under rent-control laws that can hold the rent fixed until they die (perhaps 60 years from now).
±½% compounded over 30, 45, 50, 60, or 99 years is -14%–+16%, -21%–+25%, -23%–+29%, -16%–+35%, or -39–+64%.
4% compounded over 30, 45, 50, 60, or 99 years is -71%, -84%, -87%, -91%, and -98%. So in an environment where inflation averages 4% per year, like the current US environment, such contracts are unviable even if the inflation is fairly predictable. Rent control becomes politically impossible because renting an apartment amounts to selling it. Saving for retirement requires gambling on the stock market and subsidizing the Fortune 500 with your savings.
25% annual inflation is the average we've experienced during the time I've lived in Argentina, most of my adult life. At 25% annual inflation even renting an apartment to live in becomes a major problem. The US had 24+% inflation with commodity money for two years during the Civil War; Argentina has been averaging 25% for decades now, thanks to fiat money.
The vast devaluation of silver was a quite manageable problem by comparison, except perhaps for Spain.
But it's true that volatility is a real problem for a currency.
The bigger problem often ascribed to commodity money in a growing economy is the incentive to hoard: if the economy grows 3% per year, but gold or silver (or Bitcoin) is mined at a much smaller rate, maybe the price of gold will rise in tandem with the economy. And then you can earn a 3% return just by buying gold jewelry, so maybe you won't be tempted to take the risk of investing in productive ventures (or lending to them) by buying stock and hoping for a 5% return.
My review of the Warren–Pearson index data in https://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=32258172 makes me wonder if this problem in fact exists, because it seems like gold did not appreciate significantly over the period 01776–01932, compared to their changing basket of goods. But maybe it existed in other places (maybe the US is atypical) or maybe its apparent nonexistence is an artifact of Warren and Pearson's methodology?