Thank you for directing me to that. Must say, I see no correlation between the right to protest in a private establishment (that permits public access, a stipulation of the ruling) and the right to make calls to violence (which does not exist)

Edit: that last part should read: the right to make calls to violence in addition to the rights of private entities to choose to not do business with people for non-discriminatory reasons (discrimination based on protected statuses of individuals)