> In other words, If you want to make the case the only definition of "empathy" is yours, you'll have to give me a good reason.
Not that poster (and 12 days late) but I want to chime in here because I believe they're right. Let's say the researchers are using definition 2 for empathy whereas the person you're replying to is using definition 1 - purely because I believe most people don't naturally use the researcher's definition.
Let's give a scenario, a friend is working on an essay in a subject that I'm experienced with. They're struggling, they express this by tapping their foot, scratching at their head and shifting in their seat. I'm autistic, I don't respond to any of the gestures because none of them ring any alarm bells for me.
After thirty minutes my friend expresses for the first time openly to me that they're frustrated and they're upset, they want my help. I now understand their experience and I jump in to help, assure them that the subject is just tough and that we can work on it together.
In this scenario researchers using definition 2 for empathy will say I'm incapable of it because I couldn't preempt my friend's feelings without them expressing it explicitly to me. The poster you're replying to using definition 1 says I am capable of empathy, with the caveat that I can't be empathic to emotions I can't detect.