Constitutional protections to voting explicitly apply to "citizens." This is why American Samoans, non-citizen US Nationals born in the US, can own a gun but (usually) not vote in the mainland.
If voting applied to "people" instead of "citizens" then the ID would make no sense. It's pretty insane to compare determining if someone is a citizen to determining if they are a person.
I knew the exact (non)answer I’d get from the other poster based on their other comments.
I'm not saying there wasn't plenty of allowed activities but that the concept of this being an unrestricted right goes back to roughly the second half of the previous century.
From a federal perspective this is laughably disingenuous. The strongest federal gun control is the GCA and NFA. In 1920 you could mail order a machine gun.
The bill of rights weren't even fully incorporated to apply to the states until later in the republic, such as when the 14th amendment was passed. So it's disingenuous to characterize 19th century restrictions as representations of statutes in compliance the 2nd, when the 2nd didn't even necessarily apply to local/state governments at that time.
https://int.nyt.com/data/documenttools/new-york-gun-law-temp...
This was filed by the State. Search the word “negro” to find their justification for character references.
https://reason.com/volokh/2022/11/07/preliminary-injunction-...
For a summary and explanation.
If they wanted it to apply to people, unconnected to the militia they would have said "the right of the People to keep and bear arms."
Wait...
> A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.