The answer to the question the article poses, FTA: Because the definition of "songwriting" has changed since the 1960s, and not just due to "sampling."
It's still a decent read, but if you want to argue the nuance, this is what the article says.
It's still a decent read, but if you want to argue the nuance, this is what the article says.
If so, I agree with an addendum: I think it's more about the "culture" around songwriting credits rather than the definition itself, as this was kind of always possible to do, and some people today still do the "old way". For example, back in the 60s/70s some bands like The Doors and Deep Purple would credit the whole band. And sometimes producers would also get credit, like Brian Eno with Talking Heads from the top of my head.
https://archive.org/details/TheManualHowToHaveANumber1TheEas...