So, the demographic transition took place exceptionally early in France, but why? In my research, I argue that the diminished sway of the Catholic Church, nearly 30 years before the French Revolution, was the key driver of the fertility decline.
It more and more seems like "traditional", conservative societies are more successful on aggregate. If they are beneficial to the individuals comprising them, this is a matter of heated debate though. But regardless of that, does the apparent higher fitness of conservative societies (in a global point of view) mean that more "open minded" and "liberated" societies will always be overtaken by the conservative ones ?Are we cursed to an eternal dance between perceived personal liberty and societal success ?