"Money creation in the modern economy" from the Bank of England is worth a read - it explains why this isn't the case.
https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/quarterly-bulletin/2014/q1/m...
I guess a way to ask the question would be: if i were to liquidate all assets of a bank and call in every loan, would that be >= all customer deposits?
If I deposit $5 in my bank account, and then the bank keeps $1 in reserve and lends out $4, then they just added $4 to the money supply. I can withdraw my $5, and the loan-taker can withdraw their $4. This is possible because there’s a reserve pool of money which is not loaned out, and because people tend to just leave the money in their account.
At least that’s my understanding. Happy to be corrected
Some other countries already provide banking via their postal system. And the US has a toe in there with postal money orders.
What happens normally though is that everyone banks at the Fed and the banks don’t have any deposits and so loans freeze up, which is bad.
Thats what ghost cities are about. CCP financing cities almost no one will live in to make money off the no bid contracts. People buy property in the ghost cities to move in and/or as an investment (its government-secured right? what could go wrong?) but then housing prices crash (because supply far exceeds demand), the lower classes are left holding the bag and legally prevented from refinancing. So they're making payments on a property that they bought at $300,000 even though it would only be worth $50k if they got it appraised & refinanced.
It's only possible if the government is also the bank. It's a totally conflicted situation.