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Comment by anthk | Hacker News Reader

Why neither Arabic or Hebrew didn't accept vowels as the core of its script?

It's not very necessary when you take the structure of the languages into account. In most cases the vowels are predictable from the grammar[0]. Your question is a bit cart-before-horse, really - they have a writing system that is perfectly adequate for what is it used for, there is no evolutionary pressure for it to adapt to.

[0] In case you are not familiar: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semitic_root#Triconsonantal_ro...

Because these scripts were developed while societies transitioned from oral tradition to literacy. It's only modern literate language that brings with it an aura of exactitude. Oral tradition allows for more ambiguity and alternate interpretation, and arabic and hebrew developed in a way that suppored that expectation of flexibility and ambiguity through a triple of consonants having many possible meanings.

And? Castillian Spanish can be traced to vulgar Latin (almost) and then to Latin, yet we did changes on usability, grammar and spelling over centuries.

Being Arabic and Hebrew "inmutable" on vowels hinders the main reason for a language to exist, its main purpose: being able to be a proper tool to send a message between two or more peers.

There's no excuse to put vowels if you already set an standard, as the RAE did for Spanish five centuries ago.

Why doesn't English accept tones as the core of its script? :)

If any, English needs an orthografic reform.

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