There's no _biological_ reason that ancient Celtic women were allowed own property while contemporary ancient Roman women were a literal possession of their father or husband and ancient Greek women weren't really allowed leave the house; that was _culture_. (Simplified example, btw; there were edge-cases where Roman women were essentially emancipated, say, and Celtic and Greek practices differed dramatically by region, but even within a pretty restricted time and area of the world there were massive differences in how this all worked)