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There are plenty of situations such as wealth gained from slavery where it wasn't illegal at the time but remains morally tainted.

(What proportion of the King's wealth derives from the time before Magna Carta and the concept of legal restraint on the Crown? Until then it was effectively impossible for anything the monarch did, including the most blatant theft and murder, to be deemed illegal)

In re "stealing other peoples rightful inheritance", as a side comment, the Crown (but not the King) is the beneficiary of inheritances for which an owner cannot be found.

I mean what a silly place to argue from. Was the norman conquest of england lawfully achieved at the time?

Conquest was legal until the Kellogg-Briand Pact outlawed it in 1928, so yes /s

"lawfully gained at the time".

So, theft under color of law.

Look, there's an obvious way to resolve this that will satisfy everyone. Simply pass a law first, then legally eat the rich.

Then by that logic, if they simply pass a law saying that all the monarch's wealth is confiscated, everything is fine.