When I was a schoolkid, I received various lesson materials that labelled homophones as homonyms. It took me years to discover that was wrong and unlearn that. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Homonym#Related_terms
That begs the question: does correcting a homophone constitute a correction of grammar or of spelling? And another: can I successfully provoke another correction by 'misusing' "begs the question"?