No, it isn't a fact. This assertion is a common internet troll trick that relies on misusing the "product property of square roots" [i.e. sqrt(xy) = sqrt(x)sqrt(y)], with the "trick" being that the "product property" is only applicable for x,y >= 0 and x,y ∈ ℝ, and therefore cannot be used to "prove" 1+1=0.
Why purposely mislead people who may take you at your word?