Would you use the same logic to argue in favor of California updating it's law to remove listing race, sex, color, and ancestry from the list of explicitly defined prohibitions?
The argument in the case of caste is that it's already covered by way of the law presently prohibiting discrimination based on "ancestry". But additionally, the law prohibits discrimination based on "genetic information", which seems like it would cover race, sex, and ancestry. Color, probably, too, unless that's intended to protect clowns and the sun tanned.
Edit: Similarly, would you say California erred back in 2005 when they amended the law to specifically include sexual orientation, as courts were already using the existing law to rule against sexual orientation (on the basis of it being also sex based discrimination, see like Rolon v. Kulwitzky back in 84)?