I don't understand why this is surprising, in fact it seems trivially provable. Aren't all BB(x, y) problems reducible to Collatz-like problems?
BB(x, y) problems are trivially converted to the halting problem:
- find all machines with x states and y symbols that halt, set all the non-halting ones aside.
- run all the halting machines together one step at a time until they've all halted. The number of steps you've executed is the value of BB(x, y).
I believe Conway presented a reduction from the halting problem to collatz-like problems, so finding BB(x, y) for any value of x and y can be reduced to a collatz-like problem with this two step reduction (BB to halting problem to Collatz problem).