> Firstly postnord is a (largely government owned) private company, so employees are not state employees. For state employees, employees with sovereignty duties (e.g. police...) typically there are restrictions around strike action.
So the government owns the company, but the employees are not government employees?
Everything I said still stands.
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EDIT: Basic common sense says you can either be considered (1) a government organization with statutory exclusivity and legal responsibility (2) a private organization without statutory exclusivity or legal responsibility.
Sweden is letting Postnord have its cake and eat it too.