I guess the counterpoint to this is as the number of balls goes from 100 to infinite, it becomes increasingly harder to predict, correct?
"One cool thing is that this probability doesn’t change if you replace 100 in the statement of the problem with some other number (as long as it’s at least 2), as these arguments show."
Source: https://x.com/littmath/status/1752167731682492522?s=46