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Two peaks on a downward trend are still a downward trend. That trend is more obvious if you look at population-corrected rates. https://www.statista.com/statistics/281416/birth-rate-in-the...

73mil/yr is the world number. https://www.guttmacher.org/fact-sheet/induced-abortion-world...

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The peak in the 60s occurs a while after the pill was made available in the UK and begins to trend downward before it was made more easily accessible.

Contraceptive measures are not an explanation in and of themselves. They provide no information regarding the "why".

I'd argue that the reduction is more specifically reflective of people's willingness to have children in times of economic hardship or declining living conditions; perceived or otherwise.

The pill was not readily available (absent a reason pregnancy may be harmful to the mother) in the UK until 1967, and not to unmarried women until 1974.

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