We can guess the effect that might have on exchanges by considering: unmounted but encumbered people travel at about 25km/day; spanish missions in California were about 50km apart; Pony Express riders with relay remounts could cover 120km/day.
The Pony Express lasted all of 18 months and was apparently financially unsustainable.
On a fortress of the city: “Many Spaniards who have seen it, and who went to Lombardy and other foreign kingdoms,” he adds, “say they have not seen another building like this fortress nor a stronger castle.”
In any event, the advantages of stronger pack animals are only significant if you can create wheeled carts. The Incans, like most Mesoamerican civilizations, had limited access to metals and advanced metallurgy preventing them from widespread usage of wheels as a means of facilitating travel. Without wheels, the amount of distance most animals can go while carrying their supplies is fairly similar.
If I recall correctly, it is something on the order of 150 km, regardless of horse, ox, or even human. If you have to carry your food and water you can only go around 150 km with what you can carry. That means proportional consumption rate is highly similar, so two animals that can carry 100 kg is not materially different than one animal that can carry 200 kg. Under that model you would probably actually prefer smaller pack animals to reduce concentrated risk of animal loss and improve maneuverability.
You actually can do better since animals like horses can efficiently graze, but that heavily limits your transportation speed and weight maximums for commerce purposes and you still need to feed the humans.
Incidentally this is why rivers are so important in early civilization. Barges on rivers bypass the fundamental distance limit even without wind. Floaty boat and a stick to push off the banks/riverbed dominates almost everything else for commerce.
[1] https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/renaissance-quarterl...
Meanwhile, in 15th century Europe…
The capital city of the Incan empire, Cusco, is estimated to have had a population of ~40,000 [1] ruling over an estimated 10,000,000 people.
The capital city of Spain at the time, Toledo, had a population of a mere ~32,000 [2] at the time ruling a population of a mere 6.5 million at the time.
Contemporaneous accounts demonstrate the comparable grandeur of their seats of power and more objective determinations demonstrate the comparability of scale and scope. It is not just “a handful of fancy residences” unless you apply that moniker to Spain as well.
For that matter, Spain in the early 1500s is not exactly a wealthy country. Their wealth largely came from their American conquests which resulted in what is believed to be a ~300-600% increase in the amount of European-accessible gold and silver [4]. It is a little hard to determine how much came from plunder and how much from the mines and slavery, but the Incans were not poor in precious metals, the measure of wealth in the contemporaneous European societies.
[1] https://www.worldhistory.org/Cuzco/
[2] https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Toledo,_Spain
Why were the Spaniards colonizing the Americas rather than the Incas colonizing Spain?
The person I am replying to then makes the implicit argument that obviously a poor society would be conquered and then makes the explicit argument that obviously the Incans were poor because alpacas do not count. This line of argumentation relies on the Incans being poor otherwise the implicit argument fails. The implicit argument is being made because otherwise there is no reason to bring up "it's impossible to build a wealthy society" since that would be irrelevant.
I point out how the Incans were not poor and thus their implicit argument fails. I quoted first-hand witnesses who support that the Incans appeared to be quite wealthy and thus the "wealthy conquers abject poor" theory does not adequately explain the Spanish conquest of the Incans.
You are free to make a different root argument, but it is not really the point here. But you do have to make a argument that is consistent with the fact that the Incans seemed pretty darn wealthy even though they were missing certain technologies that we would normally view as critical or indicative of "progress".
It goes beyond the sheer number of soldiers, too - if you have more economic surplus, you can spend it on e.g. things like mining to obtain better materials to make weapons from, on science to construct more advanced weapons etc.
If you do not think that the Incans were materially poorer than the Spanish, the we already agree. If you disagree and actually want to respond to the arguments presented, please present a argument supported by evidence that does not use circular reasoning to demonstrate that the Incans were much poorer than the Spanish.
As an example of circular reasoning: "The Spanish had more advanced weapons demonstrating they invested more economic surplus into weapon technology which proves they had more societal economic surplus." Not to say that superior weapon technology could not be a reason for the successful Spanish conquest, but it is not evidence of a significant "wealth gap" unless you subscribe to the ludicrous notion that all technology gaps are by definition wealth gaps. Even if we did assume that ridiculous notion is true, we have no way of comparing the tech trees of two civilizations to compare their "tech wealth" so it still just ends up being circular reasoning.
A more subtle answer is the Spanish commanders had access to thousands of years of military history in the form of books.
The looting was doing the same thing that the US government does - injecting money into the economy, which always results in inflation.
The same thing happened with the two American gold rushes.
This can be disproven by simply plotting the quantity of money in circulation compared to the inflation rate.
For instance from 2005 to 2020 the US went from 6.5 to 15 trillion dollars in circulation yet inflation was around 2%.
Same story for the eurozone which went from 3 to 9 trillions euro in circulation, with similar inflation (despite the Quantitative Easing policy of injecting currency in financial markets).
The eurozone provides another clue in that its member states experience different inflation in spite of sharing a common currency.
The true effects of injecting money in the economy are more complex than a straightforward increase in inflation. Most notably, since economic projects must be financed before they can be undertaken, injecting money in the economy can result in the economy increasing in size if there is spare productive capacity and resources.
There are indeed cases like Venezuela where injecting money results in inflation because there is a supply crisis (more money attempts to buy the same quantity of goods) but it cannot be generalized to all economies.