> No. They weren't even in the same category, even the comparison doesn't make sense.

The comparison does make sense if you interpret the parent’s post simply to state that Babylonian mathematics (in Mesopotamia) were developed (and seemingly stagnated) before Greek mathematics began in earnest. Which seems to be pretty uncontroversial. There are extant clay tablets from 1800 to 1600 BC that would indeed predate the Greek Geometers by a millennia — and that’s if you’re counting Thales as the beginning.

Ie. your parent post is using “ahead of” == “temporally before” not as in “more advanced”.

This is the difference between philosophy and number systems. The Babylonian number system was, by far, the superior system to the Greek number system (which they inherited from the Egyptians.) This is something even the Greeks acknowledged because they would use the Babylonian system to do their own calculations, and then convert it back into the Greek numbers (similar to how the USA scientists use the metric system and then convert back to the imperial system today).