Based on your wording alone, would it be safe to say the mother was unable to avail herself of counsel before making a decision?
Based on your wording alone, would it be safe to say the mother was unable to avail herself of counsel before making a decision?
We only really have the father's and judge's account of events here.
Given that, then this whole thread is pointless. I just assumed people were more informed based on what they’re claiming.
And this is actually one of the many things that this executive doesn't seem to grasp about the fundamentals of how this England-inherited, American-modified government functions. Due process doesn't just protect the people. It protects the king from rumors abounding about his tyranny that eventually lead to his beheading, because if there is no record to show then there is no record to justify the actions of the crown either.
The Magna Carta has stood for about a thousand years. But it has stood because every monarch who tried to place themselves above it found themselves much shorter by the end of their reign.
Right a lack of records is itself an indicator due-process wasn't provided.
So in this case, a common saying does not apply: Absence of evidence is evidence of absence!
It gets tricky when a deportation is completed before a court can hear the case. Attempting to prevent a detainee from communicating their location and situation to someone who could bring a legal action on their behalf doesn't appear to be explicitly illegal, but it's certainly an attempt to subvert due process and probably ought to be illegal.
It’s interesting how the administration always talks about these people being here illegally and that they’re all criminals but then leverages the non-criminal aspect of the proceedings to their advantage.