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>but intent supersedes interpretation

so dont worry about what i wrote, whats important was what i was thinking? fair enough

If market value is the instrinsic value, how could two separate markets get different prices for the same asset?

methodology states it is based on prices quoted

> If market value is the instrinsic value, how could two separate markets get different prices for the same asset?

Much like, returning to our analogy, how the same distance can be different depending on the observer's frame of reference.

> methodology states it is based on prices quoted

And now read the rest. For "consumer goods and services purchased".