if the scammers had spoofed the email, they would already have that code, and if they hadn't spoofed that email... I mean it looks like a case ID, why would they need it?
Maybe the reading back the code was to get buy in, then there's a missing step here like they had him hit "allow" on a 2fa prompt. Or maybe the email was legit, since it references a "temporary code" and the case ID allowed access with that code?
Good chance my reading comprehension is shot and I'm missing something, I suppose, but I don't understand.