It would be nice if you explained what you're talking about, rather than just assuming everybody knows. Whatever it is, you come off as someone "protesting too much" by taking a simple reference to WWII as being an attack on Switzerland. Apparently over some sort of alleged Nazi collaboration? That's kind of a stretch.
For what it's worth, I took them to mean "Did not suffer significant population losses, widespread physical devastation, and exorbitant military expenditures during WWII, and so found themselves in a much stronger economic position than all the other major European countries in the decades that followed". I don't understand why you seem to have a different interpretation, especially one that you yourself describe as "baffling" and "not relevant" to the question of national wealth.