Never liked that form of the Euler's formula. I prefer the following:
(-1)ˣ = cos(πx) + i sin(πx) (-1)ˣ = cos(πx) + i sin(πx) (-1)ˣ = cos(πx) - i sin(πx)
As a formula about e^iπx, there is no such conflict.Instead shoehorning it into an arbitrary symbol salad by gimping its generality, I prefer the one which makes a statement: "What does it mean to apply inversion partially?"