> I will tell you how it can be - if the JavaScript engine JITs the JS in a more optimized way than the C compiler compiled the C.

Yes. Exactly. Let's say there are two languages A and B, and A is compiled (be it JIT or AOT) by a smarter compiler, resulting in faster code than the same program written in language B, how does that not make language A faster?

I do know that comparing interpreted/JITed code and AOT-compiled code is somewhat nonsensical, but then again, so is talking about "faster" and "slower" languages.