If someone is poor, why does it matter what historical circumstances caused that result? If two people inherit their grandmother's houses, and both houses are worth $100k, what difference does it make that one house is worth that much because of redlining and the other because of rust belt deindustrialization?
You keep circling back to economics to justify treating people differently based on race, and it makes no sense. If you want to help poor people, just do that directly.
> Property tax funding primary school through high school has resulted in broad under investment in minority schools and over investment in white schools.
False, and has been for decades: https://www.brookings.edu/wp-content/uploads/2026/07/Reber_S.... See page 27:
"This report documents nearly five decades of changes in school funding patterns across the United States... Districts with the highest non-white enrollment shares maintained higher spending throughout the entire period studied, although their advantage was smaller, and in some years reversed if spending is adjusted using CWIFT. Like high-poverty districts, districts with higher non-white shares also experienced disproportionate spending growth after the mid-1990s."
> Legacy admissions has preserved a egregious preference for affluent students that is a far larger distortion to a meritocracy than affirmative action ever was.
Legacy admits have slightly academic scores than the average person admitted: https://www.nytimes.com/2023/07/27/upshot/ivy-league-legacy-...