Was it the case before the 70s?
My understanding of the argument is that it doesn't deny that unions and strikes weren't instrumental but that it was only economically sustainable because of the increased productivity.
It may have been good (for the US), but that definitely doesn’t make it normal, and unfortunately I don’t see how such a situation occurs again without similar circumstances. I’d love to be wrong, though.
The same things were enjoyed by workers in most of Western Europe and even Japan post-war.
The current population decline crisis will likely shift the pendulum towards labor in 50 years or so.
Nowadays there are plenty of people, so wages haven't risen to keep up.