Can someone connect the dots for me between "share went down" being "despite GDP went up"? One of those is a percentage and the other is an absolute amount. I would not expect that they would be directly related in and of themselves (in fact I would suspect that that they would move more independently). I am all for the idea that there are harms to having a massive wealth inequality, but the numbers in the article do suggest that US workers are on average taking home more than they were before, even if 'capital' is benefitting more (where those workers are also still the majority beneficiary of those capital returns), and yet the article seems to just dance around this and report it as if those workers are worse off in absolute terms.