when not an chemical imbalance problem at least
This qualifier undermines your point, since there was certainly evidence (as I posted upthread) that he did have a medical problem.
This qualifier undermines your point, since there was certainly evidence (as I posted upthread) that he did have a medical problem.
If you check when he started having depression and what he was reading at the time and how this depression developed you see it has to do with the way the system works, which eventually killed him.
Are you referring specifically to the JSTOR/MIT case, or to something else further back? If it's the latter, can you give a reference?
If it's the former, you are aware, aren't you, that Swartz was on record years before the JSTOR/MIT case describing his depression?
http://www.aaronsw.com/weblog/verysick
His description here sounds like the classic symptoms of chemical depression. Which is not to say, once again, that there weren't also other factors involved in the JSTOR/MIT case.