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You have now changed your argument from 'wage gap' to 'income gap'. Those two are not the same thing.

A 'wage gap' implies getting paid less for the same job. No good. An 'income gap' implies someone earns less than someone else. That seems perfectly acceptable.

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There are plenty of occupations where women are paid less for the same job. I'm perfectly happy to keep using the term wage gap.

I switched to the term income gap because others were arguing about the gap in aggregate.

If - Men and women with the same employment histories get paid similar amounts - Women earn less, on average, because they work less - Some women get paid less than men for the same job

Does it not follow that men are equally impacted by the "wage gap".

And if so, how would that influence your usage of the term?

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