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The author claims that shelves weren't being stocked because the employee mix had been shifted towards part-time workers.

OK, accurate or not, it says nothing at all about the total number of available 'worker-hours' just that the full/part-time mix had changed. It simply doesn't follow logically that there would be a shortage of labor just because the mix changed.

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Is it possible that full-time workers would be more experienced and/or better motivated, resulting in increased productivity per worker?

They treat employees like crap and pay them as little as possible. Thus they get exactly what they pay for; sullen workers who do the bare minimum not to get fired.

Sure that is possible but that is a different argument. The author should have made that point explicitly if that was indeed the situation (and provided evidence).

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