What Logic Is Not
logicmazes.com
logicmazes.com
Viewing logic systems as objects themselves is a very important insight and yet surprisingly counter-intuitive. Logic is logic. It feels like the aether of reasoning--constant and ever-present. But in reality, you can easily design and use different systems with different constraints and philosophies, giving you different results. You can even reason logically about logic, considering a logic system as an object itself! I think this sort of realization is one of the most important steps to understanding that elusive "mathematical mindset" people like to talk about.
For me, learning all about Curry-Howard and how programming relates to logic really opened my eyes. I'm already comfortable with treating programming languages and programs as objects--I do all sorts of metaprogramming and static analysis and so on. Seeing proofs and logic systems in the same light made everything clear. A proof is just a program; a logic just a programming language and so I can treat them in the same ways. I really believe Curry-Howard is one of the most important ideas I've ever learned--it gave me a new perspective on CS, a new perspective on mathematics and a way to naturally link the two. Thinking by analogy is very powerful, and Curry-Howard is ultimately just that, a rigorous analogy.
As an aside, I think we can reasonably codify induction by talking about probabilities. See "Does Algorithmic Probability Solve the Problem of Induction"[1] which is a great paper that breaks Betteridge's law. (Sort of.)
Logic, in the practical, day-to-day sense, isn't something that replaces emotion. Without emotion, we wouldn't be able to make logical decisions (established by studies on people with brain damage that specifically took out their capacity for emotion- they can lay out all the pros and cons of a decision, but they can't actually decide)- because emotions are what allow us to atribute value to things.
So when we say "I did the logical thing and took the job that offered more pay", what goes unsaid is that we emotionally prefer more money to less money, and maybe value that over whatever the other costs much be.
TL;DR:
Logical decision-making is calculative, but it is not free of emotion. Emotions matter.
PS: I know this isn't directly related to the more mathematical, axiomatic sort of logic being discussed... but I just have a lot of feelings.
1. I prefer more money than less money
2. Job x is offering more money
3. I prefer job x
There is your syllogism, your "logical thing". However, the emotional part about money is just an axiom: you may call it obvious, but not logical.
... Or maybe you can, if you consider something like:
1. Money is good
2. I prefer more good than less good
3. I prefer more money than less money
However, you will always end up on an axiom: something you say is true, without any logical thinking involved, like "money is good". There is your emotional part.
I hope I understood your point correctly. In this case, my answer is: you can always separate logic from emotions by going into details of the reasoning.
This was generalized by A. Einstein in something along the lines of "a problem cannot be solved with the same state of mind it was created in". I like to understand that as:
1. You have a problem.
2. You have a situation that cannot be solved.
3. You have a situation you think cannot be solved.
4. You have a reasoning process concluding that the situation cannot be solved.
5. You have a state of mind which implies, as a logical outcome, that the situation cannot be solved.
First-order logic is powerful enough that it has become the yardstick of adequacy for mathematical proofs: a mathematical proof about a mathematical domain is only adequate if (i) the mathematical domain accepts a first-order axiomatization, and (ii) we believe the proof can be rendered as a proof in FOL.
So the broader point is that we have a lot of freedom in choosing axiomatisations. But in fact we do not, at least in mathematics: there is one accepted axiomatisation (up to equivalence of inessential variations) of Peano arithmetic, one of ring theory, one of vector spaces, one of C* algebras, etc.
It's worth noting that almost any statement can be used as an axiom. You can build a math on top of "2+2=5". It just won't be a very useful math. Which brings up the point of usefulness.
Some sets of axioms are more useful than others. Usually because they seem to align with how the universe appears to work. But in other cases they are just convenient.
So there are no "really, really true" axioms. But there are "really, really useful" ones.
mathematicians have a fantastic talent for complicating language...
My rules are the axioms, and they are axioms not because they are really, really true; they are axioms because I say they are.
Always remember: mathematics are abstract, you (the mathematician) control the system, so you pick the axioms.
[1] http://www.amazon.com/Gödels-Proof-Ernest-Nagel/dp/081475837...
> It's not that 'axioms' are mathematicians asking for you to just assume some things about numbers that seem obvious but can't be proven. Rather, axioms pin down that we're talking about numbers as opposed to something else.
Eliezer says axioms are like scope resolution operators. I'm curious where he got this idea from, because I doubt he came up with it on his own in a vacuum.
So for example, if we're attempting to model a causal chain, we might apply the modus ponens inference rule to deduce the truthfulness of your above proposed statement. But the inference rule is itself an axiom and there's no reason why we can't define a system of logic where it does not hold.
Would that system of logic be useful in modeling reality? It very well may be for modelling some aspects of reality.
Is it possible to definitively say that there is a "Logic" that exists apart from logical systems. I'm not sure how you could define the former without the latter. As a result, this sounds somewhat akin to the classical Greek belief that the universe fundamentally consists of numbers and is probably more of a philosophical statement than anything else.
Is it? I've seen Boolean True explicitly derived from Modus Ponens. Apparently, p -> q = ~p v q which looks derivable from Aristotle's Third Law.