On the other hand, when FT critique his empirical work, Piketty says that his work has already been superceded by other work that proves income inequality is growing. So nothing the FT can say about Piketty's work will overturn this now well established fact.
So which is it? I'm inclined to go with the former, because those economists focused on Piketty's empirical work and downplayed his theoretical work and policy suggestions. And my own knowledge of economics informs me that detailed empirical work of this sort is not done enough. So I think that while Piketty might consider the empirical part of his book to be a detail, in fact it is a very important matter. All that remains is how valid FT's criticism is, and how much it changes the results.