HYPOTHETICAL:
You have internet through an ISP that charges for data. I am a provider of paid content (movies, music, ebooks...whatever) and you are a customer of mine. Your ISP provides detailed billing that breaks down your bill by IP address.
I allow you to send me a copy of your ISP bill each month, and I figure out from the detail billing break down how much of your data costs were due to downloading or streaming content you purchased from me. I reimburse you for that.
QUESTIONS:
1. Is there a net neutrality violation here?
2. If you say that there is, can anything be done to stop it?
3. If there is NOT a violation of net neutrality here...does that change if the ISP makes it easier for me to pay part of your bill? For instance, suppose the ISP offers to save me the hassle of getting and reading a copy of your bill and instead they track your usage of my data and they bill me, and deduct those costs from you bill?
(The situation in #3 is essentially, I believe, what AT&T called "Sponsored Data", and was pretty widely frowned upon by net neutrality advocates).
4. If you say that the original hypothetical was OK, but the ISP getting involved as described in question 3 is not, what is it about ISP involvement that makes a difference? I am assuming that the ISP offers the "pay for your customers' data" service to anyone, for any kind of data.