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As a brief summary, as of 2012 the decline in labor force participation rate was about 1/3 due to demographic shifts and 2/3 due to the business cycle. The paper notes it was expected to fall even further, however individual "behavior changes" caused it to not fall as far.

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Most of it was due to "business cycle"?

What does that mean?

The recession triggered changes in organiztion structure accross a wide variety of areas. This led to re-negotiation or termination of previously existing employment contracts. When there is a market failure to re-negotiate such contracts on mutualy agreeable terms, the parties are no longer in an employee/employer relationship. The parties are not in the workforce. Whether they are declared "unemployed" or not is a bit of a shambolic side debate about window dressing.

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