I inferred that the studies are entirely bogus, i.e., no actual labwork is being done. I feel you can make this inference pretty safely from, for instance, the fact that the phony papers reference a nonexistent statistical methodology. If real work is being conducted, why bother citing a fictitious methodology?
I could be wrong, but I felt that soup-to-nuts fraud was strongly implied in the piece.
The giveaway, to me, is the fake statistical method that's repeatedly cited (in this case, the "Begger's funnel plot"). A legitimate meta-analysis wouldn't cite a fake methodology. It would have no need to do so. The fake method is used because it sounds arcane and advanced, and whoever is doing the peer review is going to assume it's legit.