I hate to be that guy but there are plenty of reasons why this might be logical behavior. (I say "that guy" because I'm not prepared to argue for their relevance to voting.)
The most trivial example is that he simply changed his mind—but obviously this has nothing to do with IIA.
Another reason is that he might be dining with someone (who is, perhaps, away from the table). Say that he knows his partner's preferences are C>B>A. Say his own preferences are B>A>C, but that he also has a preference for being able to sample two distinct choices. Initially, he believes that his partner will order B, so he orders A to maximize his range of desserts. Upon learning that the "irrelevant" choice C is available, he will have to order his top choice, B, himself.
The same scenario could play out with himself as the second diner, in the sense that he knows he will have two opportunities to visit this restaurant (and that their dessert choices will remain constant). If his preferences are C>B>A, and for whatever reason he decides to order his second-most-preferred dessert first and his most-preferred dessert on the next visit, then his choice is logical.
Perhaps he's of the opinion that a kitchen which prepares cherry pie cannot prepare an adequate apple pie.
The point is, alternatives are rarely "irrelevant". In fact, including the word "irrelevant" in IIA is begging the question: we are tasked with determining whether dominated alternatives (for example) really are irrelevant, and our answer might be "no".