"these algorithms are trained on historical data, and poor uneducated people (often racial minorities) have a historical trend of being more likely to succumb to predatory loan advertisements"
to
"Even if this is the most common question being asked on Google [..] this shows that algorithms do in fact encode our prejudice"
It's hard to make the case for prejudice when the example involves historical data, so the author weasels in an unrelated example to make the case that there is prejudice.
So which is it? There are correlates to credit worthiness which are indeed illegal, allegedly to correct bias. But the legal arguments have moved away from the concept of bias and now squarely focus on impact. See the recent Supreme Court decision on disparate impact for instance.
This seems to be the author's point of view to:
"Why is this ignorant? Because of the well-known fact that removing explicit racial features from data does not eliminate an algorithm’s ability to learn race. If racial features disproportionately correlate with crime (as they do in the US), then an algorithm which learns race is actually doing exactly what it is designed to do!"
So for the author, anything that affects one ethnic group differently is racist, whether or not it is born by the data. Prejudice or bias are irrelevant to his definition.
But then why focus on race? No scoring algorithm is perfect, and some people are always going to be shortchanged. So why not just declare by fiat: let's ignore people's height, it's height-ist. Height correlates to income and to credit worthiness. Even if you remove height from the data, your algorithm will end up picking correlates which can become a proxy to height... and the same will be true with virtually any attribute you can think of. So why race?