Not in any meaningful sense. Clearly the quote contains more than that. It's like saying "everything boils down to A = A" (Aristotle, Metaphysics), therefore anything following from that is an "unoriginal" idea.
342 karma · joined May 6, 2017
Not in any meaningful sense. Clearly the quote contains more than that. It's like saying "everything boils down to A = A" (Aristotle, Metaphysics), therefore anything following from that is an "unoriginal" idea.
What point are you trying to make with this snide remark?
That sources should be disregarded if their ideas “offend” 50% of the population (a claim for which you provided no evidence)?
That sources should be disregarded if they made money from book sales? This would mean disregarding almost all sources.
That a commentary is "unoriginal" if someone in the past has "shared similar insights"? This is pure nonsense.
What evidence do you have to support this ridiculous claim? The vast amount of interest in cryptocurrencies seems to indicate otherwise, not to mention the use of all kinds of decentralized cryptographic protocols.
That is a non-sequitur. What makes you think “the free market” caused the famine?
See the section titled “Relationship with the liar paradox” in the Wikipedia article on the incompleteness theorems.
So you are calling redm a liar. Do you have anything to back up that accusation? Or are you calling them a liar purely because it suits your poorly-constructed narrative?
> When we all know statistically America is worse than ever before.
"We all know..." is false. What you mean is probably more along the lines of "This is what I think, without having done any research to support my wild claim."
> You read the parent comment and think the poor and just lazy
Where did the GP call the poor lazy?
> and all your have to do is work yourself a slave and suck corporate dick.
See above.
> Nope, it's always the corporate stooge.
Why are you accusing redm of being a 'corporate stooge'?
Why did you posit that?
An Approximation of the Universal Intelligence Measure
https://link.springer.com/chapter/10.1007/978-3-642-44958-1_...
Measuring universal intelligence: Towards an anytime intelligence test
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S000437021...
It is not moving with respect to the reference frame.
> Do you have motion when you are in a plane? Or do you say you are at rest because the passenger next to you is moving with you?
You are having a hard time understanding reference frames. You are at rest with respect to the plane. You are at rest with respect to the passenger beside you (assuming they're sitting still, relative to the plane). You are not at rest with respect to the ground below.
The whole point of relativity is that no inertial frame is in an absolute state of "motion" or "rest". The laws of physics are the same in all inertial frames, whether it be your plane or the earth itself.
The ship is at rest with respect to its own reference frame.
> So do you deny that the earth is moving? I assume not.
The earth is at rest with respect to its own reference frame.
It is moving with respect to other things, such as the sun, or the center of the galaxy. Motion and rest are relative. This is the key concept, and I don't understand why you're having such trouble with it.
An object is at rest with respect to its own reference frame.
> The academic descendants of the same academics who believed in absolute rest now call themselves physicists and make the same mistake and assume that absolute rest exists.
In other words, you think all physicists are wrong and you're right?
This is a straw man. No one is making that assumption. Something is in motion or at rest with respect to a reference frame. For some reason, you keep misinterpreting this statement and ranting about "absolute motion" and "absolute rest".
◻²A = J
where A is the 4-potential, J is the 4-current, and ◻² is the 4-Laplacian or d'Alembertian (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Classical_electromagnetism_and...). The reason this is so elegant is because it is both manifestly covariant and manifestly a wave equation. See https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/201847/why-is-th.... Furthermore, conservation of 4-current is given by
◻·J = 0
where ◻· is the 4-divergence. Again, the equation is manifestly covariant and very elegant. There are reasons to believe that the electromagnetic potential is in a sense more fundamental than the electromagnetic field:
What are you talking about? Motion is definitely not absolute, and only Galilean invariance is needed to see that.
Seen from a given reference frame, the temporal component of P is the energy E, its spatial components are the momentum 3-vector p, and its magnitude is the rest mass |P| = sqrt(E^2 - p^2) = m. The minus sign rather than plus sign is due to the Lorentzian signature. It is very helpful to visualize these quantities geometrically as 4-vectors in 4-dimensional space.
Admittedly, I did not fully understand the point the GP was trying to make with the Spain comparison.
In any case, the same point would apply in the other direction.