Is this not the gambler's fallacy? Shouldn't the odds be unaffected by a previous crash?
We can reduce the rate of crashes by taking planes out of the sky, and one way to do that is to crash them.
The gambler fallacy would be "I have seen 9 days without crash, on the 10th day there is higher odds of crash". But you are not asking this, you are asking: "What is the chance that in the next 10 days, exactly first 9 days would be no-crash and on the 10th day there is a crash".
EDIT: Also, another view:
If you have seen 9 blacks in a row, there is an even chance 1/2 (roulette without zero) that the next will be black or red. Because in all sequences of length 10 starting with 9 blacks (this is given, you observed this), there is equal number of those with 9 consecutive blacks and a red and of those with 9 consecutive blacks and a black. This is gambler fallacy, believing that after repeated colour, you have higher chance of the other colour.
Here, you are asking: how many of all sequences of length 10 have exactly 9 blacks and 1 red. And there are all kinds of sequences with 1 red in first 9 places, 2 reds, 3 reds, etc., so the odds of observing the 9 blacks in a row in the first place before asking about the 10th spin is lower, but it does not change the odds of the 10th spin itself.