> I disagree.
Care to elaborate, and give some examples? Tks
Care to elaborate, and give some examples? Tks
From the linked article: "Readers – from the conspiracy theorist to the grammar enthusiast, the student of racial injustice to the sociologist – would have something to celebrate."
If applying the pre-1978 laws to pre-1978 works would cause this celebration, then surely applying them to post-1978 works would also cause such celebration.
For further elaboration - if the contemporary rules were applied, then a work from 1977 would become public domain in 2033 and a work from 1978 would become public domain in 2048 (or 2073). If the pre-1978 rules were to be reinstated today, without backdating, then that 1978 work would still take 70 or 95 years. With backdating, it would become public domain in 2034.
I just would like to know your bases for your disagreement, and ask for some examples. Maybe there is a misunderstanding.
Let's consider something other than copyright. It is bad to retroactively prosecute people for new crimes, but (for example) should people convicted of sodomy prior to 2003 have to serve out their (up to life) sentences, or since the act is no longer illegal, should they be freed? Surely, if an act is no longer a crime, it's abhorrent to treat people who have committed that act as criminals.