Very strange that only just 20-25 years ago, the richest people in the world were "only" worth <7,000,000,000
Very strange that only just 20-25 years ago, the richest people in the world were "only" worth <7,000,000,000
You have an inflation rate (measured through a time series of Consumer Price Indices) for a given timeframe and an initial amount of money. Multiply it.
It's just to compare purchasing power over time.
So say, for example, the Index was at 240 in 1992, but today that same index is 360. So for £100 of 1992 money in today's terms you'd do:
360/240 * 100 = £150
Essentially you just want the ratio of prices for the basket of goods.
More information here (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Consumer_price_index), including info about the appropriate US index to use.
http://www.bls.gov/data/inflation_calculator.htm
It also probably makes sense for the Fed not to compute its own inflation index, as its mandate is to manage inflation (and unemployment). Managing a statistic you control might lead to unintended consequences.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wealth_inequality_in_the_Unite...
> 1995: top 1% control 38.5% of wealth > 2010: top 1% control 35.4% of wealth
I'm still not following your line of thought?
My thought is that it's established that there's a percental wealth/income gap that's getting larger, not smaller. It might not be very enlightening to classify just 99% / 1% here, though.