How did the Supreme Court reason that? It seems to be a violation of Amendment 7.
I mean honestly I think this is ideologically motivated just like the rash of decisions that have practically made it impossible to file a class action lawsuit by letting companies require their customers to use arbitration.
Unless you subscribe to the Marxist doctrine that every economic interaction is "really" a question of one party having power over the other, which is delusional like the rest of Marxism.