He writes 'but the left side is an integer'....
IMO the left side of the last equation is equal 0....
Any comments?
[Edit:] The argument I had in mind is bad, my point is that the value of the left hand side does not matter for the proof, so it is not calculated. (I leave the comment up for context of the answers below.)
The proof only uses the fact that the left side is an integer, since all terms are integers (a!/n! ∈ Z for a > n)