A plea deal involves an admission of guilt to something, otherwise prosecutors would have no incentive to offer it. Exactly what is another question, but I don't care enough to research the case.
For many people, even if completely innocent, a plea deal is a smarter choice than going to trial. So at the very least they are guilty of taking a plea deal. Possibly something more, but that can't be inferred.
But no guilt has been established, and not even a formal charge at this point - so we are left with a question of how can a citizen be deprived of their property by the gov't when neither of these has been established.
A guilty plea is a formal admission of guilt.
Perhaps I don't understand the meaning of this then: "the charges were dismissed without adjudication of guilt."