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Every home is owned by somebody. So, saying that ownership rates are outrageously high is the same as saying that there are too few people. How does that make sense in the context of a discussion of home ownership? How would someone decide on a theoretical optimum home ownership rate?

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A landlord can own multiple homes.

If one person owns all of the property, ownership rates would be pretty much 0%.

Owner occupied rate would be a more interesting metric.

There will be flaws. Not all homes are equal. People share ownership. Etc.

How does that apply to what I wrote? The discussion wasn't about low ownership rates but outrageously high home ownership rates and some amorphous optimum ownership rate.

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