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According to the article, "ahorita" in standard Spanish is the imperative.

No, according to the article, “most Spanish speaking countries” (not “standard Spanish”, which isn't a thing) use the diminutive form “ahorita” as more immediate form of “ahora” (“right now” vs. “now”.) Which has nothing to do with (an orthogonal concern to) the imperative, which is used in issuing commands.

Then that article is wrong, because "ahorita" in Spanish is just the diminutive form of "ahora" which means "now". "Ahora" is an adverb and therefore has no imperative form, unlike verbs.

You'd never hear "ahorita" in Spain, unless someone is trying to mock Mexicans.

Thanks. I've never even visited Spain.

But then, I wonder why Google Translate gives "right now" for "ahorita". Is it used that way in any Spanish-speaking countries? Me, I just know Mexico.

And here's an hypothesis: The use of "ahorita" to mean "perhaps sometime in the indefinite future" correlates with the share of indigentes in the population. So you wouldn't see it in Costa Rica, for example, or even among Mexican criollos.

Right, not imperative. Is there an analog for adverbs?

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