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You seem to have a preconceived notion on the way the world works: Woman get paid less than men. But when encountering data that would imply the contrary, instead of simply correcting your premise, you rework the analysis of the data in a convoluted way, in order that you keep your preconceived notion about how the world works: "Woman should really be earning even more, but because of prejudices they are only earning x more than men."

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All the parent comment is really saying is that "young, childless women" aren't an equivalent demographic to "young, childless men." In addition to the arguments already stated, I imagine that more men than women in the relevant age group are childless in the first place (since men are typically older than their wives). This alone means that a young woman's childlessness says more about her than a young man's does about him.

Nowhere does the comment say that women should be earning more than men. It says that if having children wasn't as much of a liability to working women as it currently is, then childlessness in women would be less associated with career-mindedness, which would cause this particular statistic to equalize somewhat.

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