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So far and iff Greece does pay back the remaining debt. It’s not entirely uncommon for a lender to make some money from interest before the other party defaults and the lender loses its investment. Could you explain why this is controversial? Should Germany have donated funds to make up for the mismanagement of the Greek government?

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It isn't controversial for me. I think it's correct to make a bit of money off of it, especially after Greece lied their way into the EU with fraudulent accounting. However, GGP said that the EU more or less donated money to Greece and that is just not factually correct.

In fact, GGP is also wrong in indirectly claiming that subsidies are bad. Every country on earth gives out subsidies to its economy and as the EU acts like a country in many ways (esp. wrt trade), it should give out subsidies to its economy.

GGP just tried to bash the EU with baseless arguments, as it almost always happens in such threads.

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