I had the same initial reaction when I saw this. But the article appears to be pretty reasonable actually. I didn't catch strong hints of an agenda.
Yikes, let's not be misleading in turn. That's not why they don't have those stats. Here's the actual reason and context you conveniently left out:
"unfortunately, the NSFG doesn’t have full data on men’s premarital sexual behavior, and in any event they recall their own marital histories less reliably than do women)"
Demonstrate why they are incorrect or misleading as opposed to setting up a strawman.